[Nov 06, 2024] New CTFL_Syll_4.0 Exam Dumps with High Passing Rate [Q41-Q63]

[Nov 06, 2024] New CTFL_Syll_4.0 Exam Dumps with High Passing Rate

Get CTFL_Syll_4.0 Braindumps & CTFL_Syll_4.0 Real Exam Questions

NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following statements is true?

• A. Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions
• B. A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure
• C. Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels
• D. A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error

Answer: A

Explanation:
Failures can be caused by defects, but also by environmental conditions. A failure is an event in which the software system does not perform a required function or performs a function incorrectly, according to the expected behavior. A defect is a flaw in the software system or a deviation from the requirements or the specifications, that may cause a failure. However, not all failures are caused by defects, as some failures may be caused by environmental conditions, such as hardware malfunctions, network interruptions, power outages, incompatible configurations, etc. Environmental conditions are factors that affect the operation of the software system, but are not part of the software system itself. The other statements are false, because:
A defect does not always produce a failure, while a bug always produces a failure. This statement is false, because a defect may or may not produce a failure, depending on the inputs, the outputs, the states, or the scenarios of the software system, and a bug is just another term for a defect, so it has the same possibility of producing a failure as a defect. For example, a defect in a rarely used feature or a hidden branch of the code may never produce a failure, while a defect in a frequently used feature or a critical path of the code may produce a failure often. A bug is not a different concept from a defect, but rather a synonym or a colloquial term for a defect, so it has the same definition and implications as a defect.
A defect may cause a failure which, when occurring, always causes an error. This statement is false, because an error is not a consequence of a failure, but rather a cause of a defect. An error is a human action or a mistake that produces a defect in the software system, such as a typo, a logic flaw, a requirement misunderstanding, etc. An error is not observable in the software system, but rather in the human mind or the human work products, such as the code, the design, the documentation, etc. A failure is not a cause of an error, but rather a result of a defect, which is a result of an error. For example, an error in the code may cause a defect in the software system, which may cause a failure in the software behavior.
Bugs are defects found during component testing, while failures are defects found at higher test levels. This statement is false, because bugs and failures are not different types of defects, but rather different terms for defects and their manifestations. As mentioned before, bugs are just another word for defects, and failures are the events in which the software system does not perform as expected due to defects. Bugs and failures can be found at any test level, not only at component testing or higher test levels. Test levels are the stages of testing that correspond to the levels of integration of the software system, such as component testing, integration testing, system testing, and acceptance testing. Defects and failures can occur and be detected at any test level, depending on the test objectives, the test basis, the test techniques, and the test environment. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.3.1, Testing in Software Development Lifecycles1 ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Failure, Defect, Bug, Environmental Condition, Error, Test Level2

NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following is a test task that usually occurs during test implementation?

• A. Make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered
• B. Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project
• C. Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests
• D. Archive the testware for use in future test projects

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
A test task that usually occurs during test implementation is to make sure the planned test environment is ready to be delivered. The test environment is the hardware and software configuration on which the tests are executed, and it should be as close as possible to the production environment where the software system will operate. The test environment should be planned, prepared, and verified before the test execution, to ensure that the test conditions, the test data, the test tools, and the test interfaces are available and functional. The other options are not test tasks that usually occur during test implementation, but rather test tasks that occur during other test activities, such as:
Find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the tests: This is a test task that usually occurs during test analysis and design, which is the activity of analyzing the test basis, designing the test cases, and identifying the test data. During this activity, the testers can use techniques such as root cause analysis, defect prevention, or defect analysis, to find, analyze, and remove the causes of the failures highlighted by the previous tests, and to prevent or reduce the occurrence of similar failures in the future tests.
Archive the testware for use in future test projects: This is a test task that usually occurs during test closure, which is the activity of finalizing and reporting the test results, evaluating the test process, and identifying the test improvement actions. During this activity, the testers can archive the testware, which are the test artifacts produced during the testing process, such as the test plan, the test cases, the test data, the test results, the defect reports, etc., for use in future test projects, such as regression testing, maintenance testing, or reuse testing.
Gather the metrics that are used to guide the test project: This is a test task that usually occurs during test monitoring and control, which is the activity of tracking and reviewing the test progress, status, and quality, and taking corrective actions when necessary. During this activity, the testers can gather the metrics, which are the measurements of the testing process, such as the test coverage, the defect density, the test effort, the test duration, etc., that are used to guide the test project, such as planning, estimating, scheduling, reporting, or improving the testing process. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.1, Test Planning1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.2, Test Monitoring and Control1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, Test Analysis and Design1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.4, Test Implementation1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.5, Test Execution1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.1.6, Test Closure1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Environment, Test Condition, Test Data, Test Tool, Test Interface, Failure, Root Cause Analysis, Defect Prevention, Defect Analysis, Testware, Regression Testing, Maintenance Testing, Reuse Testing, Test Coverage, Defect Density, Test Effort, Test Duration2

NEW QUESTION # 43
An e-commerce site accepts credit cards for processing the payment. The payment processing form has a field for the amount of money to be deducted. The minimum amount of money that can be processed is $10. The credit cards have a limit of $5,000 (Five Thousand). Assume that only integers can be accepted as inputs.
Which of the following set of boundary values you will choose for EFFICIENT testing for the amount of money that can be spent?

• A. 9,5001
• B. 9,10,5000,5001
• C. 9,10,11,4999,5000,5001
• D. 10,5000

Answer: C

Explanation:
Boundary value analysis involves testing at the boundaries between partitions. The most efficient boundary values to test are those at the edge of the input ranges:
* Just below the minimum value (9)
* At the minimum value (10)
* Just above the minimum value (11)
* Just below the maximum value (4999)
* At the maximum value (5000)
* Just above the maximum value (5001)
Testing these values ensures that the program handles the boundaries correctly, covering both valid and invalid input scenarios.
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NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?

• A. Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics
• B. Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process
• C. Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment
• D. Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes. Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the functionality or performance of the software product. References: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3

NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following is a typical potential risk of using test automation tools?

• A. Reduced feedback times regarding software quality compared to manual testing
• B. Reduced repeatability and consistency of tests compared to manual testing
• C. Underestimation of effort required to maintain test scripts
• D. Reduced test execution times compared to manual testing

Answer: C

Explanation:
One of the typical potential risks associated with using test automation tools is the underestimation of the effort required to maintain test scripts. While test automation can reduce test execution times and provide more consistent and repeatable tests compared to manual testing, maintaining test scripts can be labor-intensive and often requires significant effort. Changes in the application under test can lead to frequent updates in the test scripts to keep them functional and relevant.
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 6.2 on the benefits and risks of test automation tools
* The syllabus outlines that while automation can improve efficiency, it also introduces maintenance challenges.

NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following statements correctly describe the business facing quadrant that supports the team?

• A. It is the quadrant that Non-functional testing such as performance and the tests are created on the basis of user scenarios
• B. It is the quadrant that deals with tests created on the basis of user stories.
• C. Exploratory tests are generally used for this quadrant
• D. It is the quadrant that component testing.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The business-facing quadrant that supports the team is focused on tests that validate the system against user stories. These tests ensure that the system delivers the value and functionality described by the user stories, which are central to agile methodologies.
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.1.7 on the testing quadrants, particularly the business-facing tests that support the team and are based on user stories.

NEW QUESTION # 47
Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?

• A. Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code
• B. Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems
• C. Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code
• D. Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques

Answer: A

Explanation:
This answer is correct because code-related white-box test techniques are test design techniques that use the structure of the code to derive test cases. They provide an objective measure of coverage, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, or path coverage, which indicate how much of the code has been exercised by the test cases. Code-related white-box test techniques can be used to complement black-box test techniques, which are test design techniques that use the functional or non-functional requirements of the system or component to derive test cases. By combining both types of techniques, testers can increase their confidence in the code and find more defects. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.2

NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following statements about branch coverage is true?

• A. The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually lower than that needed to achieve full statement coverage
• B. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have surely been exercised
• C. Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage
• D. If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have surely been exercised

Answer: C

Explanation:
Exercising at least one of the decision outcomes for all decisions within the code, ensures achieving full branch coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all branches in the control flow of the code are executed at least once by the test cases. A branch is a basic block of code that has a single entry point and a single exit point, and a decision is a point in the code where the control flow can take more than one direction, such as an if-then-else statement, a switch-case statement, a loop statement, etc. The decision outcomes are the possible paths that can be taken from a decision, such as the then branch or the else branch, the case branch or the default branch, the loop body or the loop exit, etc. The other statements are false, because:
The minimum number of test cases needed to achieve full branch coverage, is usually higher than that needed to achieve full statement coverage, which is a test coverage criterion that requires that all executable statements in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. This is because branch coverage is a stronger criterion than statement coverage, as it implies statement coverage, but not vice versa. For example, a single test case can achieve full statement coverage for an if-then-else statement, but two test cases are needed to achieve full branch coverage, as both the then branch and the else branch need to be exercised.
If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all unconditional branches within the code have not necessarily been exercised, as unconditional branches are branches that do not depend on any decision, and are always executed, such as a goto statement, a break statement, a return statement, etc. Unconditional branches are not part of the branch coverage criterion, as they do not represent different paths in the control flow of the code. However, they are part of the statement coverage criterion, as they are executable statements in the code.
If full branch coverage has been achieved, then all combinations of conditions in a decision table have not necessarily been exercised, as a decision table is a test design technique that represents the logical relationships between multiple conditions and their corresponding actions, in a tabular format. A decision table can have more combinations of conditions than the number of decision outcomes in the code, as each condition can have two or more possible values, such as true or false, yes or no, etc. For example, a decision table with four conditions can have 16 combinations of conditions, but the corresponding code may have only two decision outcomes, such as pass or fail. To exercise all combinations of conditions in a decision table, a stronger test coverage criterion is needed, such as condition combination coverage, which requires that all possible combinations of condition outcomes in the code are executed at least once by the test cases. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.3.1, Test Coverage Criteria Based on the Structure of the Software ISTQB® Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Branch Coverage, Statement Coverage, Branch, Decision, Decision Outcome, Unconditional Branch, Decision Table, Condition Combination Coverage

NEW QUESTION # 49
Which ONE of the following is a CORRECT example of the purpose of a test plan?

• A. A test manager should always create a very simple test plan because the purpose of test plan is to ensure that there is documentation for the purpose of audits.
• B. A test plan is a good document to have for the agile projects because it helps the test manager assign tasks to different people
• C. A test lead decides to write a detailed test plan so that in future, in case of project failure responsibilities could be assigned to the right person
• D. A testmanager decides to create a one page test plan for an agile project for communicating the broad activities and explaining why detailed test caseswillnot be written as mandated by the test policy.

Answer: D

Explanation:
A test plan serves multiple purposes, such as defining the scope, approach, resources, and schedule of the testing activities. It also helps in communicating important information and managing stakeholder expectations. In agile projects, test plans might be concise to align with agile principles of simplicity and flexibility. A one-page test plan can effectively communicate broad activities and strategic decisions, such as not writing detailed test cases due to the project's agile nature. This approach ensures that essential information is conveyed without unnecessary documentation overhead, adhering to the agile manifesto's value of "working software over comprehensive documentation".

NEW QUESTION # 50
What is test oracle?

• A. The source of input conditions
• B. The source for the actual results
• C. The source of expected results
• D. The source of lest objectives

Answer: C

Explanation:
A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc2. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.

NEW QUESTION # 51
Which of the following statements about TDD, BDD and ATDD is true?

• A. Refactoring is a practice that is an integral part of TDD and is applied both to tests and to code written to satisfy those tests
• B. ATDD is the practice of running the automated acceptance tests as part of a continuous integration process
• C. BDD is a developer practice where business stakeholders are not usually involved as the tests are directly written at unit/component test level
• D. ATDD is a black-box test design technique that is applicable exclusively at acceptance test level

Answer: A

Explanation:
Test-Driven Development (TDD) includes refactoring as a key practice. After writing tests and the code to satisfy those tests, refactoring is performed to improve the code and test quality without changing the functionality. This continuous process helps maintain clean, efficient, and manageable code.
References:
* ISTQB CTFL Syllabus 4.0, Chapter 2.1.3, page 25: TDD, ATDD, and BDD Practices

NEW QUESTION # 52
Test automation allows you to:

• A. produce tests that are less subject to human errors
• B. increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects
• C. avoid performing exploratory testing
• D. demonstrate the absence of defects

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Test automation allows you to produce tests that are less subject to human errors, as they can execute predefined test scripts or test cases with consistent inputs, outputs, and expected results. Test automation can also reduce the manual effort and time required to execute repetitive or tedious tests, such as regression tests, performance tests, or data-driven tests. Test automation does not demonstrate the absence of defects, as it can only verify the expected behavior of the system under test, not the unexpected or unknown behavior. Test automation does not avoid performing exploratory testing, as exploratory testing is a valuable technique to discover new information, risks, or defects that are not covered by automated tests. Test automation does not increase test process efficiency by facilitating management of defects, as defect management is a separate activity that involves reporting, tracking, analyzing, and resolving defects, which may or may not be related to automated tests. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 3.3.1, Test Automation1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test Automation2

NEW QUESTION # 53
The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:
1. Component (unit) testing
2. Integration testing
3. System testing
4. Acceptance testing
An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

• A. It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test
• B. It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality
• C. It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.
• D. It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

Answer: D

Explanation:
The V-model is a software development life cycle model that defines four test levels that correspond to four development phases: component (unit) testing with component design, integration testing with architectural design, system testing with system requirements, and acceptance testing with user requirements. The V-model emphasizes the importance of verifying and validating each phase of development with a corresponding level of testing, and ensuring that the test objectives, test basis, and test artifacts are aligned and consistent across the test levels. Therefore, an organization that wants to follow the V-model cannot do away with integration testing, as it would break the symmetry and completeness of the V-model, and compromise the quality and reliability of the software or system under test. Integration testing is a test level that aims to test the interactions and interfaces between components or subsystems, and to detect any defects or inconsistencies that may arise from the integration of different parts of the software or system. Integration testing is essential for ensuring the functionality, performance, and compatibility of the software or system as a whole, and for identifying and resolving any integration issues early in the development process. Skipping integration testing would increase the risk of finding serious defects later in the test process, or worse, in the production environment, which would be more costly and difficult to fix, and could damage the reputation and credibility of the organization. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
The other options are incorrect because:
A) It is not allowed as organizations can decide on the test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test. While it is true that the choice and scope of test levels may vary depending on the context of the system under test, such as the size, complexity, criticality, and risk level of the system, the organization cannot simply ignore or skip a test level that is defined and required by the chosen software development life cycle model. The organization must follow the principles and guidelines of the software development life cycle model, and ensure that the test levels are consistent and coherent with the development phases. If the organization wants to have more flexibility and adaptability in choosing the test levels, it should consider using a different software development life cycle model, such as an agile or iterative model, that allows for more dynamic and incremental testing approaches.
B) It is not allowed because integration testing is not an important test level and can be dispensed with. This statement is false and misleading, as integration testing is a very important test level that cannot be dispensed with. Integration testing is vital for testing the interactions and interfaces between components or subsystems, and for ensuring the functionality, performance, and compatibility of the software or system as a whole. Integration testing can reveal defects or inconsistencies that may not be detected by component (unit) testing alone, such as interface errors, data flow errors, integration logic errors, or performance degradation. Integration testing can also help to verify and validate the architectural design and the integration strategy of the software or system, and to ensure that the software or system meets the specified and expected quality attributes, such as reliability, usability, security, and maintainability. Integration testing can also provide feedback and confidence to the developers and stakeholders about the progress and quality of the software or system development. Therefore, integration testing is a crucial and indispensable test level that should not be skipped or omitted.
C) It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring it means definite poor product quality. This statement is partially true, as integration testing is a very important test level that should not be ignored, and skipping it could result in poor product quality. However, this statement is too strong and absolute, as it implies that integration testing is the only factor that determines the product quality, and that ignoring it would guarantee a poor product quality. This is not necessarily the case, as there may be other factors that affect the product quality, such as the quality of the requirements, design, code, and other test levels, the effectiveness and efficiency of the test techniques and tools, the competence and experience of the developers and testers, the availability and adequacy of the resources and environment, the management and communication of the project, and the expectations and satisfaction of the customers and users. Therefore, while integration testing is a very important test level that should not be skipped, it is not the only test level that matters, and skipping it does not necessarily mean definite poor product quality, but rather a higher risk and likelihood of poor product quality.
Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus, Version 4.0, 2018, Section 2.3, pages 16-18; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, 2018, pages 38-39; ISTQB CTFL 4.0 - Sample Exam - Answers, Version 1.1, 2023, Question 104, page 36.

NEW QUESTION # 54
Which of the following statements about exploratory testing is true?

• A. Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code
• B. When exploratory testing is conducted following a session-based approach, the issues detected by the testers can be documented in session sheets
• C. In exploratory testing, testers usually produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis
• D. Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements

Answer: B

Explanation:
Exploratory testing is an experience-based test technique in which testers dynamically design and execute tests based on their knowledge, intuition, and learning of the software system, without following predefined test scripts or test cases. Exploratory testing can be conducted following a session-based approach, which is a structured way of managing and measuring exploratory testing. In a session-based approach, the testers perform uninterrupted test sessions, usually lasting between 60 and 120 minutes, with a specific charter or goal, and document the issues detected, the test coverage achieved, and the time spent in session sheets.
Session sheets are records of the test activities, results, and observations during a test session, which can be used for reporting, debriefing, and learning purposes. The other statements are false, because:
* Exploratory testing is not a test technique in which testers explore the requirements specification to detect non testable requirements, but rather a test technique in which testers explore the software system to detect functional and non-functional defects, as well as to learn new information, risks, or opportunities. Non testable requirements are requirements that are ambiguous, incomplete, inconsistent, or not verifiable, which can affect the quality and effectiveness of the testing process. Non testable requirements can be detected by applying static testing techniques, such as reviews or inspections, to the requirements specification, before the software system is developed or tested.
* Exploratory testing is not a test technique used by testers during informal code reviews to find defects by exploring the source code, but rather a test technique used by testers during dynamic testing to find defects by exploring the behavior and performance of the software system, without examining the source code. Informal code reviews are static testing techniques, in which the source code is analyzed by one or more reviewers, without following a formal process or using a checklist, to identify defects,
* violations, or improvements. Informal code reviews are usually performed by developers or peers, not by testers.
* In exploratory testing, testers usually do not produce scripted tests and establish bidirectional traceability between these tests and the items of the test basis, but rather produce unscripted tests and adapt them based on the feedback and the findings of the testing process. Scripted tests are tests that are designed and documented in advance, with predefined inputs, outputs, and expected results, and are executed according to a test plan or a test procedure. Bidirectional traceability is the ability to trace both forward and backward the relationships between the items of the test basis, such as the requirements, the design, the risks, etc., and the test artifacts, such as the test cases, the test results, the defects, etc.
Scripted tests and bidirectional traceability are usually associated with more formal and structured testing approaches, such as specification-based or structure-based test techniques, not with exploratory testing. References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
* ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.3, Experience-based Test Design Techniques1
* ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Exploratory Testing, Session-based Testing, Session Sheet, Non Testable Requirement, Static Testing, Informal Review, Dynamic Testing, Scripted Testing, Bidirectional Traceability2

NEW QUESTION # 55
Consider an estimation session where a six-member Agile team (Memb1, ... , Memb6) is performing a planning poker session to estimate a user story (in story points). Team members are using a set of cards with the following values: 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21. Below is the outcome produced by the first round of estimation for this session:

Which of the following answers best describes how the estimation session should proceed?

• A. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of the most optimistic estimate (chosen by Memb6) and the most pessimistic estimate (chosen by Memb4) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation
• B. The final estimate of the user story in story points is determined as the arithmetic mean of all the estimates made by the team members during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation
• C. Memb4 and Memb6, which have produced the most pessimistic and the most optimistic estimates respectively, should explain the reasons of their choices to stimulate a discussion between all team members before to proceed to another round of estimation
• D. The final estimation of the user story in story points is determined as the most frequent estimate value among those selected by the team members (in this case 3 story points chosen by Memb1, Memb2, Memb3, Memb5) during this first round, without the need to perform further rounds of estimation

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Agile estimation sessions, particularly during Planning Poker, the goal is to reach a consensus on the effort required for a user story. The process encourages discussion and collaboration among team members to understand the story's requirements and complexities fully. Here's a breakdown of the options and why D is the correct choice:
Option A: Calculating the arithmetic mean of all estimates.
* This method is straightforward but does not facilitate team discussion or consensus-building. It merely averages out the estimates without addressing the reasons behind the varying estimates. Thus, important insights and understanding of the task complexity might be missed.
Option B: Selecting the most frequent estimate value.
* While this approach acknowledges the majority's opinion, it ignores the minority views, which might highlight significant aspects of the story that need consideration. It doesn't ensure that all perspectives are considered and discussed.
Option C: Calculating the mean of the most optimistic and pessimistic estimates.
* This approach considers the extremes but again lacks the team discussion and consensus aspect. It also assumes that the extreme values alone can balance out the estimate, which might not always capture the true complexity or simplicity of the task.
Option D: Discussing the most pessimistic and optimistic estimates.
* This approach fosters team collaboration and understanding. Memb4 and Memb6 explain their reasoning for the highest and lowest estimates, respectively, which can reveal different perspectives on the task's complexity. This discussion helps the team align their understanding and often leads to a more accurate and agreed-upon estimate in subsequent rounds.
In conclusion, the main goal of Agile estimation techniques like Planning Poker is to encourage team communication and collaboration to ensure that all aspects of the user story are considered. Option D best aligns with this goal by promoting discussion and consensus.

NEW QUESTION # 56
A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

• A. Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool
• B. Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes
• C. Train all testers on using the tool
• D. Decide upon standards for tool implementation

Answer: C

Explanation:
* A pilot project is a small-scale experiment or trial that is conducted to evaluate the feasibility, effectiveness, and suitability of a test automation tool before implementing it on a larger scale1.
* The objectives of a pilot project may vary depending on the context and scope of the test automation initiative, but some common ones are2:
* To get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool
* To check how the tool fits to the existing test processes and environment
* To assess the benefits and challenges of using the tool
* To decide upon standards and guidelines for tool implementation and usage
* To estimate the costs and resources required for tool deployment and maintenance
* Therefore, option C is not a valid objective of a pilot project, as it is not necessary to train all testers on using the tool at this stage. Training all testers on using the tool would be more appropriate after the tool has been selected and approved for full-scale implementation, and after the standards and guidelines have been established. Training all testers on using the tool during the pilot project would be inefficient, costly, and premature, as the tool may not be suitable or effective for the intended purpose, or may be replaced by another tool later.
References:
* 1: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 82
* 2: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 83
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 84
* : ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 85

NEW QUESTION # 57
Shripriya is defining the guidelines for the review process implementation in her company. Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to have been recommended by her?

• A. Review initiation is the stage when the review team starts the discussion on the review comments
• B. Defect reports should be created for every review found
• C. Independent of the size of the work products, planning for the review should be performed
• D. Large sized work products should be reviewed in one go because you will have to spend too much time if you split it into multiple reviews.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In a structured review process, it is essential to plan reviews carefully and manage them effectively.
Reviewing large work products in one go is not recommended because it can lead to oversight of issues due to fatigue or information overload. It is more efficient to break down large work products into smaller, manageable parts and review them incrementally. This ensures a thorough and effective review process.
Additionally, other practices such as planning for the review, starting discussions during review initiation, and creating defect reports for found issues are standard recommendations for an effective review process.
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NEW QUESTION # 58
A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.

• A. The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods
• B. The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.
• C. The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods
• D. The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.

Answer: C

Explanation:
The thought process of the software company is incorrect, because it assumes that each artifact can be reviewed using only one review method, and that the review method depends solely on the criticality of the artifact. This is a simplistic and rigid approach that does not consider the benefits and limitations of different review methods, the context and purpose of the review, and the feedback and improvement opportunities that can be gained from multiple reviews. According to the CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, the selection of review methods should be based on several factors, such as the type and level of detail of the artifact, the availability and competence of the reviewers, the time and budget constraints, the expected defects and risks, and the desired outcomes and quality criteria. Moreover, the same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods at different stages of the development lifecycle, to ensure that the artifact meets the changing requirements, standards, and expectations of the stakeholders. For example, a requirement specification can be reviewed using an informal review method, such as a walkthrough, to get an initial feedback from the users and developers, and then using a formal review method, such as an inspection, to verify the completeness, correctness, and consistency of the specification. Therefore, the software company should adopt a more flexible and context-sensitive approach to selecting and applying review methods for different artifacts, rather than following a fixed and arbitrary rule. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.2.1, page 31-32; Section 3.2.2, page 33-34; Section 3.2.3, page 35-36.

NEW QUESTION # 59
A new web app aims at offering a rich user experience. As a functional tester, you have run some functional tests to verify that, before releasing the app, such app works correctly on several mobile devices, all of which are listed as supported devices within the requirements specification. These tests were performed on stable and isolated test environments where you were the only user interacting with the application. All tests passed, but in some of those tests you observed the following issue: on some mobile devices only, the response time for two web pages containing images was extremely slow.
Based only on the given information, which of the following recommendation would you follow?

• A. The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality. Thus, as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed
• B. You should not open any defect report as the problem is most likely due to poor hardware equipment on the devices where you observed the issue
• C. You should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue
• D. You should not open any defect report and inform the test manager that the devices on which you observed the issue should no longer be supported so that they will be removed from the requirements specification

Answer: C

Explanation:
As a functional tester, you should open a defect report providing detailed information on which devices and by running which tests you observed the issue. A defect report is a document that records the occurrence, nature, and status of a defect detected during testing, and provides information for further investigation and resolution. A defect report should include relevant information such as the defect summary, the defect description, the defect severity, the defect priority, the defect status, the defect origin, the defect category, the defect reproduction steps, the defect screenshots, the defect attachments, etc. Opening a defect report is a good practice for any tester who finds a defect in the software system, regardless of the type or level of testing performed. The other options are not recommended, because:
The issue is related to performance efficiency, not functionality, but that does not mean that as a functional tester, you should not open any defect report as all the functional tests passed. Performance efficiency is a quality characteristic that measures how well the software system performs its functions under stated conditions, such as the response time, the resource utilization, the throughput, etc. Performance efficiency is an important aspect of the user experience, especially for web applications that run on different devices and networks. Even if the functional tests passed, meaning that the software system met the functional requirements, the performance issue observed on some devices could still affect the user satisfaction, the usability, the reliability, and the security of the software system. Therefore, as a functional tester, you have the responsibility to report the performance issue as a defect, and provide as much information as possible to help the developers or the performance testers to investigate and resolve it.

NEW QUESTION # 60
What is test oracle?

• A. The source of input conditions
• B. The source for the actual results
• C. The source of expected results
• D. The source of lest objectives

Answer: C

Explanation:
A test oracle is a mechanism or principle that can be used to determine whether the observed behavior or output of a system under test is correct or not1. A test oracle can be based on various sources of expected results, such as specifications, user expectations, previous versions, comparable systems, etc2. References:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 1.2.1, Page 91; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms, Version 4.0, Page 332.

NEW QUESTION # 61
Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

• A. Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality.
• B. Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system.
• C. Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.
• D. The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The testing of software does not demonstrate the absence of defects, but rather the presence of defects or the conformance of the software to the specified requirements1. Testing can never prove that the software is defect-free, as it is impossible to test all possible scenarios, inputs, outputs, and behaviors of the software2. Testing can only provide a level of confidence in the quality of the software, based on the coverage, effectiveness, and efficiency of the testing activities3.
The other options are correct because:
A) Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system, as they verify that the system meets the expected quality attributes and satisfies the needs and expectations of the users and clients4. Risk is the potential for loss or harm due to the occurrence of an undesirable event5. Testing can help to identify, analyze, prioritize, and mitigate the risks associated with the software product and project6.
C) Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities, as they provide feedback on the quality of the software and the effectiveness of the development processes7. Defects are flaws or errors in the software that cause it to deviate from the expected or required results or behavior. Testing can help to detect, report, track, and resolve the defects, and prevent them from recurring in the future.
D) Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality, as it can ensure that the requirements are clear, complete, consistent, testable, and aligned with the needs and expectations of the users and clients. Requirements are the specifications of what the software should do and how it should do it. Testing can help to validate that the requirements are met by the software, and verify that the software is implemented according to the requirements.
Reference =
1 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 10
2 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 11
3 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 12
4 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 13
5 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
6 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
7 ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 14
[8] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 15
[9] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 16
[10] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 17
[11] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 18
[12] ISTQB® Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 19

NEW QUESTION # 62
Confirmation testing is performed after:

• A. a failed test, and aims to run that test again to confirm that the same behavior still occurs and thus appears to be reproducible
• B. a defect is fixed and after other tests do not find any side-effect introduced in the software as a result of such fix
• C. a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed
• D. the execution of an automated regression test suite to confirm the absence of false positives in the test results

Answer: C

Explanation:
Confirmation testing is performed after a defect is fixed, and if such testing is successful then the regression tests that are relevant for such fix can be executed. Confirmation testing, also known as re-testing, is the process of verifying that a defect has been resolved by running the test case that originally detected the defect. Confirmation testing is usually done before regression testing, which is the process of verifying that no new defects have been introduced in the software as a result of changes or fixes. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 63
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