[Jan 05, 2024] Step by Step Guide to Prepare for Security-and-Privacy-Accredited-Professional Exam BrainDumps [Q54-Q78]

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Jan 05, 2024 Step by Step Guide to Prepare for Security-and-Privacy-Accredited-Professional Exam BrainDumps

Accredited Professional Security-and-Privacy-Accredited-Professional Real Exam Questions and Answers FREE Updated on 2024

NEW QUESTION # 54
What is an implication of connecting or disconnecting a tenant during the update period?

  • A. This can cause partial data to load
  • B. An error message will display to the user
  • C. All previous metrics are erased
  • D. Data will not be loaded until the following day

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 55
What archive options are available for retention policies, as of the Winter '21 release

  • A. AWS Private Connect
  • B. Heroku
  • C. Custom Connectors
  • D. S3 Connector

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 56
The Admin wants to make Salesforce applications more secure. Which set of security settings should be enabled to achieve this?

  • A. Run Health Check, Require HTTPS, Salesforce Shield
  • B. Enable ClickJack protection, Lightning Lockdown, Enable User Certificates
  • C. Enable Click Jack protection, Require HTTPS, Enable Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) Protection
  • D. Enable ClickJack protection, Health Check, Enable User Certificates

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 57
What is the type and length of the key used to encrypt data?

  • A. 3DES
  • B. RSA-4096
  • C. AES-192
  • D. AES-256

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 58
How many records per metric per org are displayed in Security Center?

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. 3

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 59
What are three of the Commerce Cloud features that are available only when MFA is enabled?

  • A. The Administration module
  • B. Generic and application-specific cartridges
  • C. The Jobs module
  • D. Javascript in HTML attributes (adding or modifying)
  • E. Embedded objects in HTML attributes

Answer: A,D,E


NEW QUESTION # 60
Which type of field allows tracking with Field Audit Trail?

  • A. Last Modified By
  • B. Roll-Up Summary
  • C. Currency field
  • D. Formula

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 61
What is the difference between Classic Encryption and Platform Encryption?

  • A. Platform Encryption encrypts custom fields only. Classic Encryption encrypts standard fields
  • B. Classic Encryption encrypts standard fields
  • C. Platform Encryption is built on Classic Encryption
  • D. Classic Encryption masks characters whereas Platform Encryption does not

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 62
Within Data Mask a user wants to stop a configuration that is currently running. What dropdown option needs to be selected to terminate the execution

  • A. CANcEL
  • B. ABORT
  • C. END
  • D. STOP

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 63
What are three recommended change management activities to prepare users for MFA?

  • A. Create onboarding materials on how to obtain, set up, and use verification methods to log in
  • B. Enable MFA for a test period to see what issues arise.
  • C. Communicate frequently about when MFA is coming and why it's important Send users a single announcement email, the day before MFA is enabled
  • D. Provide launch day support such as office hours or an onsite help desk

Answer: A,C


NEW QUESTION # 64
Which three login types must have MFA enabled when the MFA requirement goes into effect on February 1, 2022?

  • A. API logins
  • B. Automated test account logins
  • C. Federated SSO logins
  • D. Delegated authentication logins
  • E. User interface logins

Answer: C,D,E


NEW QUESTION # 65
How do triggers and process automations deactivate before running a Data Mask configuration?

  • A. User will manually deactivate all automated actions before running a configuration
  • B. Triggers and process automation do not need to be deactivated to run a configuration
  • C. User will need to run a script in the developer console to deactivate any automated processes
  • D. While running a configuration, Data Mask will automatically disable triggers and process automation before the masking begins

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 66
How do customers access Field Audit Trail data?

  • A. Salesforce API
  • B. Event Log Files
  • C. Set-up Audit Trail
  • D. Pre-built Tableau CRM app

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 67
After installing, what tab in Privacy Center 360 does a user need to input their Heroku credentials during the setup process?

  • A. Home
  • B. Settings
  • C. Setup
  • D. Remote Site Settings

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 68
What does Salesforce Data Mask do?

  • A. Anonymize data at rest within a production org
  • B. Encrypt Salesforce Sandbox data
  • C. Change the color scheme of metrics within a production org based on predetermined rules
  • D. Anonymize, delete, or pseudonymize sensitive Salesforce sandbox data

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 69
Which two technologies are used to stream and store real-time event monitoring data?

  • A. Web Sockets and PostgreSQL
  • B. CDC Events and Custom Objects
  • C. Platform Events and Big Objects
  • D. Platform Events and Standard Objects

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 70
Which three capabilities are part of the Health Check tool?

  • A. Verify that multiple Salesforce applications have the same level of security
  • B. Align your org's security setting with Salesforce-recommended security standards
  • C. Identify and fix vulnerabilities in your security settings
    Organize user access logs
  • D. Access event log files to track user activity and feature adoption and troubleshoot issues

Answer: A,B,C


NEW QUESTION # 71
What is the primary function of the Consent Event Stream?

  • A. It provides one stream to receive notifications about changes to consent fields or contact Information on all core objects.
  • B. It tracks customers' requests for updates to their data privacy preferences
  • C. It stores and manages the data related to your customer's communication subscriptions, such as newsletters or appointment reminders.
  • D. It stores the name, version, and effective dates of authorization forms

Answer: A


NEW QUESTION # 72
What are two differences between MFA and Device Activation?

  • A. Users can opt out of receiving Device Activation challenges, but can't opt out of MFA challenges
  • B. MFA is enabled for all users by default, admins must enable Device Activation
  • C. MFA challenges users on every login; Device Activation challenges users only when they log in from a new device
  • D. Device Activation allows SMS as a verification method while MFA does not

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 73
Which three MFA verification methods are supported by MuleSoft Anypoint Platform?

  • A. SMS text messages
  • B. Built-in Authenticators
  • C. Encryption Algorithm
  • D. Salesforce Authenticator
  • E. Security Keys

Answer: B,D,E


NEW QUESTION # 74
What does the default Field Audit Trail policy in a production org state?

  • A. Archive data after 24 months, store it for 7 years
  • B. Archive data after 6 months, store it for 18 months
  • C. Archive data after 12 months, store it for 5 years
  • D. Archive data after 18 months, store it for 10 years

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 75
Which three standard authentication protocols does Salesforce support to integrate external applications using APIs?

  • A. OMFA
  • B. OAuth
  • C. OpenID Connect
  • D. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
  • E. Single Sign On (SSO)

Answer: B,C,D


NEW QUESTION # 76
Where would the user go to connect a new tenant to the Security Center app?

  • A. Setup/Manage Tenants
  • B. Manage Security Tab
  • C. Setup/Security Center
  • D. Connected Tenants Tab

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 77
How are the keys packaged in case of Cache-Only Keys

  • A. Using JSON Web Token
  • B. In XML format
  • C. Packaged using OData
  • D. Using JSON Web Encryption

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 78
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